here's one way (hopefully this will shut the fake T.G. up)


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Posted by T.Gracken on October 15, 2002 at 16:37:00:

In Reply to: not the T.Gracken that posted earlier. posted by T.Gracken on October 15, 2002 at 16:12:00:

: : improper integral of 1/x^2 from 0 to 1
: : Doesn't exist, correct???

you are correct.

to show it...

integral (from 0 to 1) of {1/x2}dx

= lim (k -> 0+) of [integral (from k to 1) of {1/x2}dx

= lim (k -> 0+) of [-1/x](evaluated from k to 1)

= lim (k -> 0+) [-1 + 1/k]

= 1 + infinity (i.e. diverges)

therefor the integral can not be evaluated.





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